How better to rework my question over at C.SE, which I reproduce below, so that I may get one other authoritative interpretation other than the plain reading of the text? I would like the authoritative interpretation from BH, if one can be found.
The following scriptural verses and its plain reading were presented in my answer to What is the biblical argument that homosexual attraction is sinful (as opposed to just lust)
I believe the answer if in Trial and Temptation James 1:12-18 (RSVCE), the relevant parts being vv. 12-15:
12 Blessed is the man who endures trial, for when he has stood the test he will receive the crown of life which God has promised to those who love him. 13 Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted with evil and he himself tempts no one; 14 but each person is tempted when he is lured and enticed by his own desire. 15 Then desire when it has conceived gives birth to sin; and sin when it is full-grown brings forth death.
It is not sin until v. 15:
15 Then desire when it has conceived gives birth to sin[.]
Before then it is a a temptation for them, a trial that scripture calls to them to endure.
What other authoritative interpretations are there other than the one provided by the plain reading of the text?
Please note that only ONE other authoritative interpretation is needed to answer this question.