My answer to this question was deleted by Caleb 2 John 1:7 - Jesus Coming in the Flesh? and there appears to be no reason for doing so. So why was this deleted?
I deleted your answer as part of the migration from Christianity to Biblical Hermeneutics. I realize the target moved on you as the question was originally on a site where you answer might have been appropriate. However the question was not appropriate on that site (it should not have even been answered there).
Your answer would have been fine in the context of C.SE (if the question had called for it) but it is not appropriate for this site. You make a doctrinal case for a theological position reasoning from other Scriptures. That is all great stuff, but does not fit this site. The question specifically asks about the original meaning of one specific passage, a passage your answer does not even mention. In the context of this site, only an analysis of that specific text would be on topic.
If you'd like to answer the question here, please edit your answer to be appropriate for this site. That means removing the commentary at the top and presenting a textual rather than a a doctrinal case for your answer.
While I cannot answer for Caleb, I suspect that it was deleted because you do not specifically address the question about the meaning of 2 John 7. That is, you presented a good argument that Jesus will return in the flesh, but you did not continue with that to answer the question about whether 2 John 7 should be taken that way or not (which is the question).
So just because Jesus is returning in the flesh (second coming) does not mean 2 John 7 is referring to that necessarily; it may still be referring to simply the past event (His incarnation). That is what the question is asking, so that needs to be addressed in your answer.