Okay. I've found some time to give you my answer to the questions.
- Is it a good question? If you think so, 12 people do so far, then can you indicate why you think it is.
The question is not a good question, and those who suggest otherwise are adding nothing to the reputation of this site as a place of scholarship.
The question is either poorly formed because of ignorance of how one ought to compose a good question, or was deliberately crafted in such a way as to make its real intent less obvious.
If it was a matter of crafting, such behaviour is dishonest, and should be discouraged on this site.
- There is a glaring unsubstantiated claim being made in the question, which makes it more rhetoric than a genuine question. Can anyone identify that claim?
The unsubstantiated claim, of course, is: The text of Isaiah may have had more than one author.
Here is how Susan should have presented her question.
"High and lifted up" in Isaiah
הִנֵּ֥ה יַשְׂכִּ֖יל עַבְדִּ֑י יָר֧וּם וְנִשָּׂ֛א וְגָבַ֖הּ מְאֹֽד׃
Behold, my servant shall act wisely;
he shall be high and lifted up,
and shall be exalted.
... בִּשְׁנַת־מוֹת֙ הַמֶּ֣לֶךְ עֻזִּיָּ֔הוּ וָאֶרְאֶ֧ה אֶת־אֲדֹנָ֛י יֹשֵׁ֥ב עַל־כִּסֵּ֖א רָ֣ם וְנִשָּׂ֑א
In the year that King Uzziah died I saw the Lord sitting upon a throne, high and lifted up ...
The consensus among current secular scholars is that the text of Isaiah may have been the work of more than one author.
I’m curious about the phrase "High and lifted up", which is apparently an Isaiah-ism, occurring nowhere else in the Hebrew Bible as far as I can determine. Does the use of this phrase in Isaiah, lend further support to the view that the text of Isaiah may have had more than one author?
- Is 52:13 intentionally echoing a phrase that elsewhere refers only to God?1
- Are the two passages from which I've quoted, considered to have common authorship? (This requires something messier than the 1st/2nd/3rd scheme.)
- Or is it supposed that a later author had access to an earlier text and intentionaly wrote in that style?
- Or is it just by chance that this combination of words comes up repeatedly?
1. This combination of (qal) √rwm and (nifal) √nśʾ within the same phrase (or once in close parallel - 33:10) occurs in five passages: 2:12-14, 6:1, 33:10, 52:13, 57:15. The first is actually a polemic against those who would so exalt themselves (i.e., over against YHWH), but the idea that the description should be reserved for YHWH is the same.
In this format, the intent of the question is clear, a link/reference has been given to support the view that spawned it, and those who are not of the same view can avoid wasting the effort of casting their pearls.