There seem to be people who down vote questions based on their Trinitarian bias. As as result the questions, which are valid and important, tend to be neglected. I'm seeking a few volunteers to review the following questions and if you agree that the down voting is simply because of Trinitarian politicking:

In John 17:3, who does Jesus address as "the only true God"?

In 1 John 4:2b, what does John mean by ἐν σαρκὶ ἐληλυθότα? "In flesh [and blood]" or "among humans/men"? And why is this such an important issue?

If by chance you agree please specify why these questions are not valid in a comment because the downvoters do not provide any reason.

  • 2
    Perhaps, but perhaps there is a well-founded reason for that "bias"? Jun 18, 2016 at 5:30
  • 1
    @JamesShewey Not in sound hermeneutics. That approach is simply politics.
    – user10231
    Jun 18, 2016 at 12:56

2 Answers 2


You might be hurting your case by calling downvoters losers and leaving comments like:

So who's the coward that down voted this? Yeesh.


Down votes? No explanation? QUIT TROLLING ME, cowards!

There are reasons for not requiring downvoters to comment. I've removed both comments in order to strengthen your argument.

I don't know why people are downvoting your questions, but I wonder if they appear to be of the stump-the-chumps variety? My suggestion would be to self-answer and edit the questions to be a bit less confrontational.


I downvoted your first question because, as I responded in one of my comments in Radz Matthew Brown's answer, a few verses later in John 17:5 Jesus very clearly states that He existed with the Father before the world was, and also because you ignore similar texts.

One of the official reasons listed when hovering over the downvote button is for lack of research effort, and not reading two verses later is a lack of research effort in my opinion, and qualifies for a downvote. And on top of that, even when John 17:5 is brought to your attention, you try to get around it with "notional preexistence" which is refuted by verse 5 itself and Micah 5:2 (which I also brought to your attention), not to mention the first several chapters of Genesis (all quotations are NKJV):

Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness..." (Genesis 1:26)

Then the Lord God said, "The man has now become like one of Us, to know good and evil...." (Genesis 3:22)

"Come, let Us go down and there confuse their language..." (Genesis 11:7)

And there are many more verses throughout the Scriptures that support this concept.

Also I heard the voice of the Lord, saying:

“Whom shall I send,
And who will go for Us?”

Then I said, “Here am I! Send me.” (Isaiah 6:8)

The above verse in Isaiah having God refer to Himself first in the singular and then in the plural.

The Holy Spirit is also spoken of in various places:

...And the Spirit of God was hovering over the face of the waters. (Genesis 1:2)

Do not cast me away from Your presence,
And do not take Your Holy Spirit from me. (Psalm 51:11)

With Jesus Himself putting all three on an equal level:

Go therefore and make disciples of all the nations, baptizing them in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the Holy Spirit, (Matthew 28:19)

You even post a question where, when Jesus very clearly makes Himself equal to God by calling Himself the "I AM," you don't think this is the real reason the Jews sought to kill Him, even though a few chapters before John plainly states Jesus had done this very comparison before:

Therefore the Jews sought all the more to kill Him [Jesus], because He not only broke the Sabbath, but also said that God was His Father, making Himself equal with God. (John 5:18)

My point being that you know of most, if not all, of these passages already but basically ask the same type of question over and over and over again, and I would imagine that some who have already tried to explain things to you in previous questions, or others who have seen the same things attempted to be explained to you, get tired of being harassed by the same question.

And as for your second question, while I did not downvote, after looking through the edits I can see why someone might have. It was slightly unclear and then you put your own answer into the question field. Then you inserted a massive lexicon block into the question.

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