I asked this question, on philosophy.stackexchange, and wasn't sure if it would fit better here?

If so, I'd be really pleased to have it moved here.

As was pointed out in the answer there, clearly the terms for "prayer" and "word" are different, but I was trying to ask whether it is a reasonable reading (mostly because it reduces the supernatural aspect of God), not if it was an obvious one.

1 Answer 1


Technically, the answer is yes, however you will find that answers which involve eisegesis are typically met with some animus.

Generally, while allegory and eisegesis are not the same thing, you will want to be sure that the author of the text intended it to be allegorical and that you are not the one reading allegorically.

You will want to be sure that you do not presume in your question it was intended allegorically if that was not the case. So generally, you would want to ask 1) was this text intended allegorically? And if so 2) was Logos (word) intended to be allegorical for prayer? A question phrased in this way should generally be considered to be on topic.

  • i specifically meant 'Logos' as it appears in john 1-3. do you think i'd be heavily downvoted? –
    – user12024
    Aug 17, 2017 at 3:31
  • 2
    I do think it would probably get a few downvotes. I'll post an answer to philosophy soon however. The word "Word" in this passage when the phrase "word of God" is used is actually Logos. The Logos of Theos. John is making a very specific argument using the technical language of the ancient philosophers and participating in an ongoing discussion they were having - meaning he probably didn't intend this allegorically or as an allegory for prayer. I'll be unpacking that in my forthcoming answer for you. Aug 17, 2017 at 3:31
  • that's exciting, thanks
    – user12024
    Aug 17, 2017 at 3:32

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