Majority of the answer in the duplicated question claim that the word translator used happen because they have deeper understanding of how hebrew language really works. For translating elohim as God instead of gods, that may make sense. After all, it's followed by singular words and all. Something they know better than I am.
This question effectively ask how does those so called "deeper understanding" of hebrew language translate bene el as heavenly assembly. Their own footnotes say that the original must be bene el (or bene israel). How in the earth bene el becomes heavenly assembly. Does bene means assembly? What? What's their consideration?
First it says that the question is duplicate. I think it's pretty obvious that the question is NOT duplicate.
The question is motivated by the same motives. I want to know whether the atheists are correct all along. That the bible is actually a polytheistic book and that translators use dishonest mean to hide polytheistic aspect. Obviously that kind of topic does require many different questions.
However, the question does ask a point that the original question doesn't answer. It asks whether word choices translator used come from deeper understanding of hebrew or desire to deceive readers on what the bible really says.
Most answers on the target question lead to the former. To know which one is true would seem to require another question.
The question ask why NET bible uses heavenly assembly in their translation.
There are 2 textual variants for that so called heavenly assembly.
There is Bene El, Bene Israel. Masoretic uses Bene Israel and most bible translation says it means sons of Israel. Other websites say it should be translated as sons of God.
So possible translations are either sons of God or sons of Israel. How in the earth Bene El/Bene Israel becomes "heavenly assembly" it doesn't make sense at all.
I think it's a very legitimate question.
One way that it makes sense is if somebody is inserting theology into translation. But that would be extremely dishonest exactly as atheists claim. Well, may be I am wrong. May be there are legitimate reasons why Bene El gets translated into heavenly assembly.
I asked this question and the question is closed because it's duplicate. How in the earth the question is duplicate. It asks totally different thing.
The duplicate question ask whether there is a literal bible translation. This one ask for why a specific translation translate a verse in a specific way. How in the earth it is duplicate.
As a normal ex christian person, I felt I am being LIED too and DECEIVED all this year. When I tried to find the truth, I am just shoved of for totally irrelevant reason like this.